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Re: Equivalence Principle



Despite David Bowman's gracious and detailed response to my and Joel's
pleas for enlightenment concerning Desloge's demonstration (AJP, December
1989) that one can distinguish between uniform gravity and uniform
acceleration, I still hunger for a more conceptually satisfying
explanation.

What I want to know is, what specific observations could I make--possibly
in conjunction with others with whom I can communicate and in terms of
measurements made with local clocks and measuring rods--that would both 1)
rule out the possibility that I am uniformly accelerating with respect to
a gravitation free universe and 2) NOT rule out the possibility that the
universe is filled with a uniform gravitational field, or vice-versa.
Unless there is a reasonable answer to this question, I'm afraid I'll
simply have to go on conducting my life as though uniform gravity is
strictly equivalent to acceleration.

John
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A. John Mallinckrodt http://www.intranet.csupomona.edu/~ajm
Professor of Physics mailto:ajmallinckro@csupomona.edu
Physics Department voice:909-869-4054
Cal Poly Pomona fax:909-869-5090
Pomona, CA 91768-4031 office:Building 8, Room 223