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Re: Circular orbits, and other stuff



...
Let me try to consider a very massive star and a single small planet. We
know that an orbit is circular if the initial v=0.5*m*r^2 (in a typical
problem) has no radial component. The same planet is at rest in the frame
of reference whose one axis is always directed from the star to the planet.
How this be explained? By saying that a centrifugal force 0.5*m*v^2, "due
to rotation" happens to be equal to the centripetal force G*M*m/r^2 "due
to gravity". The net force is zero and that is why the planet is at rest.
...

Let me emphasize that I am answering here from a purely pedagogical
point of view -- i. e., if a mature physicist decides to call
accelerations forces for her own purposes, I have no objection -- but
for teaching purposes would it not be better to state what is actually
going on? We are choosing a noninertial accelerating frame so that the
*acceleration* of the frame (relative to inertial frames) cancels the
*acceleration* (and the velocity also in the given case) of the planet.
No additional force enters the picture, and you get your calculational
advantages just as quickly. Why invent a fictional force that has no
third law counterpart? The only motivation I could conceive has been
referred to by another poster as a possible "mystical" quest to make
Newton's 2nd law applicable where it is not applicable. Introducing
forces with unreal properties cannot help but confuse students.

I am not saying the second explanation is better. I am saying it is not
heretical. One way of deciding which model is better, in the long run, is
to compare efforts needed to calculate ellipticities, for example, when
the initial condition is changed by doubling the speed. But that is not
the issue.


All the calculational advantages are present without inventing any
fictitious force.


A. R. Marlow E-MAIL: marlow@loyno.edu
Department of Physics, Box 124 PHONE: (504) 865 3647 (Office)
Loyola University 865 2245 (Home)
New Orleans, LA 70118 FAX: (504) 865 2453